fannieblaker1yandex

SEC 310 Assignment 2: Terrorist Organization

Copy and Pate below link into your Browser to buy tutorial

http://hwpool.com/product/sec-310-assignment-2-terrorist-organization/

SEC 310 Assignment 2: Terrorist Organization

Due Week 9 and worth 50 point

Research a foreign terrorist organization of your choice.

Write a two to four (2-4) page paper in which you:

Describe the history of the organization.
Compare and contrast the organization’s primary beliefs, motives, and allies with another terrorist organization of your choice.
Discuss past actions and terroristic endeavors.
Discuss the present areas of operation, believed actions, and current status of the organization.
Analyze the actions taken by intelligence agencies to protect against the group’s current believed actions and describe the effectiveness of these measures.
Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment.Note:Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

PSYC 354 Full Course Homework Answers

Copy and Pate below link into your Browser to buy tutorial

http://hwpool.com/product/psyc-354-full-course-homework-answers/

PSYC 354 Full Course Homework Answers

PSYC 354 Homework 1 Introduction to Statistics

When submitting this file, be sure the filename includes your full name, course and section.
Be sure you have reviewed this module/week’s lesson and presentations before proceeding to the
homework exercises. Number all responses. Review the “Homework Instructions: General”
document for an example of how homework assignments must look.
All Questions
Part I: Concepts

These questions are based on the Nolan and Heinzen reading and end-of-chapter questions.

Fill in the blank with the appropriate word or words.

A statistic that uses sample data to make general estimates about the larger population is statistic.
A statistic that summarizes a group of numbers is a(n) statistic.
A(n) is a set of observations drawn from the larger group of interest.
The large group about which you want to know something is called .
A five-star rating system for movies is a variable at the level of measurement.
A person’s religious preference is a variable at the level of measurement.
A(n) variable is a variable that meets the criteria for an interval and ratio variable.
Discrete values that the independent variable can take on are called the of the independent variable.
A variable that is manipulated to determine its effects on another variable is a(n)
variable.
A(n) variable makes it impossible to determine whether the independent variable is the cause of changes in the dependent variable.
is the process of drawing conclusions about whether or not a particular relation between variables is supported by the data.
The hallmark of a(n) is the random assignment of participants to conditions

so that cause and effect can be discovered.

When each participant has the same chance of being assigned to the various levels of the manipulation, they are said to be to conditions.
Each participant experiences all levels of the independent variable in a(n) design.
Participants experience only one level of the independent variable in a(n) design.

Answer the following questions:
Question 1a-1b

A health psychologists decides to study the effects of living region (rural, suburban, urban) on the number of extra-curricular activities of residents.
1-a) What would the independent variable be in this study?
1-b) What would the dependent variable be in this study?

Question 2 (a-d)
Hsee and Tang (2007) reported the results of a study in which 195 college students completed a happiness
scale (from 1 to 7) one day in class. On this scale, 1 corresponded to very unhappy and 7 to very happy. On average, the students rated their happiness as 6.18. Identify each of the following for this study.

Questions 3-6
Answer these general SPSS questions.
3) In which window do you enter data in SPSS?
4) Which window displays the results of your analysis in SPSS?
5) Which SPSS main menu would you use to choose a particular statistical test?
6) If you wanted to custom define a variable in SPSS, which window would you open?
Question 7
Suppose you have administered a personality inventory to 12 people and have recorded their score on
each item in SPSS. The personality inventory has 8 items, so the SPSS file has 8 variables representing each item (item1, item2, etc.). You want to compute a total score for each participant that represents the
sum of items 1–8.

7a) Which main SPSS menu contains the option for computing a variable like this?
7b) According to the presentation and to Lesson 19 in Green and Salkind, what could you type into the “Numeric Expression” text box in order to have SPSS add items 1–8 together? (There is more than one way to do this.)
Submit Homework 1 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 1. Remember to name file appropriately.

PSYC 354 Homework 2 Frequency Tables and Graphs

All Questions
Part I: Concepts

These questions are based on the Nolan and Heinzen reading and end-of-chapter questions.

Use the following table to answer Question 1. This table depicts the scores of 83 students on an exam worth 65 points.

1) Use the information in the table to determine the percentages for each interval. Depending on your rounding decisions, these may or may not add up to exactly 100% but should be very close.

Table: Grouped Frequency Table
Exam score Frequency
60–62 3
57–59 9
54–56 21
51–53 18
48–50 14
45–47 10
42–44 8
TOTAL 83

2) When constructing a histogram and labeling the x- and y-axes, the lowest number on each axis should ideally be ……

3) A frequency distribution that is bell-shaped, symmetrical, and unimodal is

4) A frequency distribution that has a tail trailing off to the right of the distribution is

5) A frequency distribution of ages of residents at a senior citizen home is clustered around 83 with a long tail to the left. This distribution is

6) When a variable cannot take on values above a certain level, this is known as a(n) effect.

7) A grouped frequency table has the following intervals: 30–44, 45–59, and 60–74. If converted into a histogram, what would the midpoints be?

8) Do the data below show a linear relation, non-linear relation, or no relation at all?
9) Do the data below show a linear relation, non-linear relation, or no relation at all?

Part I:
Question 10a- 10e

Read the introduction and click on different “subway lines” to see how the interactive graph works.

10-a) In which of the four boroughs is the median household income highest?

10-b) Click on the “A” line. Does the line graph for Manhattan show high or low variability? What does this
level of variability tell us about the household income in this area of Manhattan?

10-c) Click on line 2. Which borough (not a street) shows the least variability in median household income?

10-d) On line 2, find the following two subway stops: Park Place (the first of the highest Manhattan stops) and E 180 St. (one of the lowest Bronx stops, located about halfway across the BRX section). What is the difference (calculate) between the median household incomes of the two areas?

10-e) Click on the “D” line. Which subway stop in Brooklyn seems to be an outlier?
Part II: SPSS Analysis
Green and Salkind, Lesson 20

Open the “Lesson 20 Exercise File 1” document (found in the course’s Assignment Instructions folder) in order
to complete these exercises.
• Always use the Blackboard files instead of the files on the Green and Salkind website as some files have been modified for the purposes of this course.
• Reminder: For Exercise 1, be sure to paste in the SPSS output and write out the answers for A, B, and C beneath it.

Part III: SPSS Data Entry and Analysis

The steps will be the same in Part III as the ones you have been practicing in Part I of the assignment; the only difference is that you are now responsible for creating the data file as well. Remember to do the following:
• Name and define your variables under the “Variable View,” then return to the “Data View” to enter the data;
and
• Paste all SPSS output and graphs into your homework file at the appropriate place.

Part III: Questions 1a-1c

PSYC 354 Homework 3 Central Tendency and Variability

Questions 1–7

Questions 1-4
Fill in the highlighted blanks to answer/complete the statements.

The arithmetic average of a set of numbers is the mean.
2) What is an outlier?

3) Which widely-used measure describes the typical amount or distance a score deviates from the mean in any given distribution?
3. Standard Deviation (-2) – correction from professor
4) What is the mathematical relationship between variance and standard deviation?

Part I: Concepts

These questions are based on the Nolan and Heinzen reading and end-of-chapter questions.
Question 5

For the following terms, write the equivalent mathematical symbol (letter or letters) for the sample statistic.
Question 6a-6c
These are the winning percentages for 11 baseball players for each one’s best 4-year pitching performance:
6-c ) Compare the mean and median. Does the difference between them suggest that the data are skewed very much?
6-a) What is the mean of the scores? (Compute this using a calculator):
6-b) What is the median of these scores?
Explain.
Question 7

Recall the interactive graph from Homework 2 depicting household income and location in New
York City.

Based on this module/week’s reading, why do you think the author of this graph chose the
median household income instead of the mean household income to describe central tendency?
Part II: SPSS Analysis
Green and Salkind Course Text, Lesson 21: Exercises 1, 4, 7, and 8

Questions 1 and 4
o Green and Salkind Text, Lesson 21
o Lesson 21 Exercise File 1 (located under course’s Assignment Instructions folder)
Part II:
Exercises 1a-1d and Exercise 4

Green and Salkind, Lesson 21, Exercises 1 and 4
Open “Lesson 21 Exercise File 1” in order to complete these exercises.
Part III: SPSS Data Entry and Analysis

The steps will be the same as the ones you have been practicing in Part I of the assignment; the only difference is that you are now responsible for creating the data file, as well. Remember to do the following:

a) Name and define your variables under the Variable View, then return to the Data View to enter the data; and
b) Paste all SPSS output and graphs into your homework file at the appropriate place.

Part III: Questions 1-4

The following data are taken from the Bureau of Labor Statistics surveys from the years 2009–2013. They represent the average weekly pay for wage and salary earners measured at 4 different quarters each year and broken down by gender.
……………………………………………..

PSYC 354 Homework 4
Sampling and Probability

When submitting this file, be sure the filename includes your full name, course and section. Example: HW4_JohnDoe_354B01
Be sure you have reviewed this module/week’s lesson and presentations along with the practice
data analysis before proceeding to the homework exercises. Complete all analyses in SPSS, then copy and paste your output and graphs into your homework document file. Answer any written questions (such as the text-based questions or the APA Participants section) in the appropriate place within the same file.

Questions 1–15

Part I: Concepts

These questions are based on the Nolan and Heinzen reading and end-of-chapter questions.

Questions 1-10

Fill in the highlighted blanks to answer/complete the statements.

1) A(n) random sample occurs when everyone in the population has the same chance of being selected.

2) The ability to apply research findings to contexts or samples other than the one studied is called generalizability.

3) The duplication of the results of a research study in a different context or with a different sample is called replication.

4) Your own estimate of the likelihood that you will uphold your New Year’s resolution is known as a(n) personal probability.

5) Expected relative-frequency probability is computed as the number of successes divided by the number of trials.

6) The experimental group is the group receiving the intervention or treatment of interest.

7) A statement that 2 populations are different from one another is a(n) research hypothesis.

8) If you find that the groups you studied differed from each other more than would be expected by chance alone, you reject the null hypothesis.

9) When you reject the null hypothesis but the null hypothesis is in fact true, you have made a(n) Type I error.

10) When you fail to reject the null hypothesis but the null hypothesis is false, you have made a(n) Type II error.

Question 11
Researchers were interested in whether touch therapy improves the weight gain of preterm infants and
compared the weight gain over a 3-week period of infants receiving touch therapy to the weight gain of infants not receiving touch therapy.

11-a) What is the likely null hypothesis for this experiment?

Touch therapy does not improve the weight gain of preterm infants.

11-b) What is the likely research hypothesis for this experiment?

Touch therapy does improve the weight gain of preterm infants.

Question 12-15

Complete the Nolan and Heinzen end-of-chapter Exercises 5.26, 5.27, 5.28, and 5.29.

12) Exercises 5.26
71/489=0.1452

13) Exercises 5.27
8/266=0.0301

14) Exercises 5.28
a)
1.73%
b)
80%
c)
37.19%

15) Exercises 5.29
a)
0.627
b)
0.003
c)
0.042

Part II & Part III
There is no new SPSS material this module/week. No questions for Part II or III
.

Part IV: Cumulative
Data provided below for Questions 1 and 2.

Grade Part IV: Questions 1a-1b

The final grades for students in a freshman seminar are shown in the left-hand column. Enter the data into a new SPSS data file.

Create the appropriate SPSS graph to show the distribution of students’ grades.
Compute descriptive statistics for this data.
Which measure of central tendency would you use to describe this data?
Why?
99.00
93.00
89.00
86.00
82.00
79.00
78.00
76.00
75.00
75.00
73.00
72.00
69.00
65.00
63.00
55.00
50.00

1-a) Create the appropriate SPSS graph to show the distribution of students’ grades.

Page 3 of 6

Answer:
1-b) Compute descriptive statistics for this data.
Which measure of central tendency would you use to describe this data? Why?

Page 4 of 6

Answer:

Descriptives

Statistic
Std. Error

Mean

95% Confidence Interval for Lower Bound

Mean Upper Bound

5% Trimmed Mean

Median

Variance

Grade Std. Deviation Minimum Maximum Range
Interquartile Range

Skewness

Kurtosis
75.24
3.097

68.67

81.80

75.32

75.00

163.066

12.770

-.146
.550

.037
1.063
Answer: Measure Of Central Tendency
Mean
Explanation/Justification:
You generally use the mean unless there are outliers or a small amount of observations. Neither is the case for this. Also, the mean and median are only 0.24 points different and the mode is the same as the median.

Page 5 of 6

Answer:

Explanation/Justification: You would use a bar graph because the independent variable is nominal and the dependent variable is scale.
2-b) What level of measurement (nom., ord., scale) is the variable “City”?
What level of measurement is the variable “Livability Rating”?
Nominal
Scale 2.b. ratings are ordinal (-2) – correction from professor

Submit Homework 4 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4. Remember to name file appropriately.

PSYC 354 Homework 5
Z-Scores
Questions 1–9
Part I: Concepts

These questions are based on the Nolan and Heinzen reading and end-of-chapter questions.

What are always the mean and standard deviation of the z-distribution? (2 pts)

2) Define the central limit theorem. (1 pt)
3)
Fill in the blanks (1 pt): A z-score is based on a distribution of equally likely events, while a z- statistic is based on a distribution of sample percentage or average.
Part I: Questions 4-8

Module 5 Lesson 21 Exercise File 1
Part II: SPSS Analysis

Open the “Lesson 21 Exercise File 1” document (found in the course’s Assignment Instructions folder) in order to complete these exercises.
………………………………………………………………..

PSYC 354 Homework 6 Percentiles and Hypothesis Testing with Z-Tests

Questions 1–4
Part I: Concepts

These questions are based on the Nolan and Heinzen reading and end-of-chapter questions.
Part I: Questions 1-8
End-of-chapter problems:

Exercise 7.8 (1 pt)
2) Exercise 7.18 (1 pt each)
3) Exercise 7.20 (1 pt each)
More Questions Included

PSYC 354 Homework 7
Confidence Intervals, Effect Size, and Statistical Power

Part I: Concepts
Questions 1–8

These questions are based on the Nolan and Heinzen reading and end-of-chapter questions.
Part I: Questions 1a-1e
Fill in the highlighted blanks with the best word or words.
Part I: Questions 2-5
End-of-chapter problems:

Complete the following Nolan and Heinzen end-of-chapter exercises for Chapter 8: 8.15, 8.22, 8.26, and 8.40.
If applicable, remember to show work in your homework document to receive partial credit.

SCIN 140 Final Examination

Copy and Pate below link into your Browser to buy tutorial

http://hwpool.com/product/scin-140-final-examination/

SCIN 140 Final Examination

Top of Form

Final Exam Chapter 1-18

Part 1 of 1 –

94.0/ 100.0 Points

Question 1 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Which of the following is the best definition of a biome?

	A.A distinct aquatic ecosystem, surrounded by wetlands and terrestrial upland.
	B.A large distinct terrestrial region similar climate, soil, organisms, regardless of its global location.
	C.One of several types of forests occurring across the globe.
	D.A natural association that consists of all the populations of different species that live and interact together within an area at the same time.

Question 2 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Which set of three parameters has the MOST effect on biome distributions?

	A.latitude, longitude, precipitation
	B.precipitation, longitude, temperature
	C.temperature, latitude, climate
	D.latitude, precipitation, temperature

Question 3 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Which zone of the lake is indicated by the letter “A” in the diagram shown?

	A.Profundal
	B.Limnetic
	C.Abyssal
	D.Littoral

Question 4 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Which of the following BEST defines ecosystem services?

	A.Important environmental benefits provided by ecosystems
	B.Environmental services that humans invest in conserving ecosystems
	C.Environmental activities that are unique to each ecosystem or biome
	D.Economic use of ecosystems as sinks

Question 5 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

In order for the growth rate to remain constant what must happen to the birth rate?

	A.It must equal zero
	B.It must decline
	C.It needs to be less than emigration
	D.It must equal the death rate

Question 6 of 50

0.0/ 2.0 Points

What is the cause of global human population growth over the last 200 years?

	A.Higher birth rate
	B.Higher fecundity rate
	C.Increase in immigration.
	D.Lower death rate

Question 7 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

What is life expectancy?

	A.Maximum life span that an individual of a given species could reach.
	B.Number of individuals in a population that survive in a given year.
	C.Number of years an individual of a certain age will probably live.
	D.Probability that an individual will survive infancy.

Question 8 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Which of the following BEST describes an urban brownfield?

	A.Vacant house lots that are overgrown with weeds and vegetation.
	B.Community gardens established by neighborhood organizations.
	C.Meadows that are earmarked for industrial development.
	D.Abandoned factories that may be contaminated from past uses.

Question 9 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

The global distillation effect occurs when:

	A.certain molecules in the atmosphere convert solar radiation to heat.
	B.volatile chemicals emitted in warm areas move to cooler latitudes.
	C.ozone in the upper atmosphere is destroyed, allowing more UV radiation to reach the planet.
	D.volatile organic compounds react in the presence of UV radiation to produce ozone.

Question 10 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Sources of air pollution include all of the following EXCEPT:

	A.smoke from forest fires
	B.exhaust from tailpipes of cars
	C.gases released during volcanic eruptions
	D.no exceptions, all of the above are sources of air pollution.

Question 11 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Why is industrial smog usually worse in the winter?

	A.Cold temperatures prevent the dissipation of pollutants.
	B.Heat domes form, holding pollutants close to the ground.
	C.Pollutants react with ice crystals, forming ozone.
	D.Combustion of household fuels is higher.

Question 12 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

What has been the major success of the Clean Air Act?

	A.Higher fuel efficiencies in cars and power plants.
	B.An increased focus on alternative sustainable energy sources.
	C.Significant decreases in emissions of nitrogen oxides.
	D.Significantly less air pollution.

Question 13 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

You are travelling as part of a work assignment and your plane crashes. You are able to climb up to a ridge top and get a cellphone signal. You describe your surroundings to the operator: “I have travelled through wet boggy areas and I am worried about hypothermia. The tallest plant I saw was less than a foot. There are no trees in sight and the only animals I have seen are lemmings, rabbits, and swarms of mosquitos.” What biome are you most likely in?

	A.grassland
	B.tundra
	C.tropical rainforest
	D.temperate rainforest

Question 14 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

You have been hired to research suggest solutions to the problem of urban sprawl in your local area of the United States. Using Portland, Oregon as a model, what should you suggest?

	A.Compact development which includes multiple unit residential buildings.
	B.Development of suburbs as opposed to urban brownfields which are environmentally contaminated.
	C.Public transportation that is convenient and connects people with shopping and employment.
	D.A and C
	E.All of the above.

Question 15 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

A survey of toxic PCBs in breast milk of women from the Yukon shows geographic variation. Northern areas are less populated but breast milk samples show higher levels of PCBs than southern areas that are more urban. What would be the most reasonable hypothesis based on what scientists know about air pollution?

	A.Global distillation effect is responsible for the difference in PCB levels.
	B.Chemical concentration in fat occurs at greater rates of PCBs in Inuit women due to genetics.
	C.Regulations on air pollution are stricter in southern urban areas of the Yukon leading to the difference in PCB levels.
	D.Chemicals from factories enter the air in colder climates and move to warmer latitudes causing the difference in PCB.

Question 16 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Biologists who study plants growing high in the Alps found that plants adapted to cold-mountain conditions migrated up the peaks as fast as 3.7 m per decade apparently in response to global warming. Assuming the same trend continues at the same rate and the plants are currently at 1028m, at what altitude should the plants be found in 20 years?

	A.1031.7
	B.1035.4m
	C.1074m
	D.They would not be found since they have been pushed to extinction.

Question 17 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

What is a rain shadow?

	A.The silhouette of mountains as the sun passes from east to west.
	B.The shade on the ground produced by clouds that threaten rain.
	C.The dry land on the side of the mountains away from the prevailing wind.
	D.The lessening of a chance of precipitation on any given day due to dry air at equator.

Question 18 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

What causes ozone depletion?

	A.Flying airplanes especially at high altitudes.
	B.Combustion of a sulfur containing fuel like coal.
	C.CFCs leaking from old refrigerators and air conditioners.
	D.Deforestation especially in mountainous regions.

Question 19 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Which of the following is NOT an effect of acid deposition?

	A.mutations and skin cancer
	B.decreased hatching success in some birds
	C.forest decline
	D.destruction of monuments and buildings

Question 20 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

All of the following are problems associated with overdrawing groundwater EXCEPT:

	A.Land subsidence
	B.Increased infiltration
	C.Lowering of the water table
	D.Aquifer depletion

Question 21 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

What is the structure located at the Rocky Reach Dam on the Columbia River and shown in the photograph below designed to do?

	A.It reduces erosion downstream..
	B.It improves the efficiency of hydroelectric generation
	C.It slows down water to decrease sedimentation
	D.It is a fish ladder to help fishes migrate upstream

Question 22 of 50

0.0/ 2.0 Points

Which of the following pollution problems are caused by sewage pollution?

	A.Sediments that can reduce light penetration in water bodies.
	B.Disease causing agents that pose a risk to human health.
	C.Radioactive substances that can potentially threaten drinking water.
	D.Carbon dioxide emissions that contribute to global climate change.

Question 23 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Wastewater, including sewage usually undergoes several treatments at a sewage treatment plant. Match the treatment with the process for expected outcome.

	A.primary treatment: eliminating inorganic and organic compounds by aerating and circulating the wastewater.
	B.tertiary treatment: biologically decomposing suspended organic material.
	C.secondary treatment: reducing phosphorus and nitrogen levels with a filtering system.
	D.primary treatment: removing suspended and floating particles by mechanical processes.

Question 24 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

From the figure below interpret the basic pattern of ocean currents and identify the reason why it is so.

	A.The main ocean current flows south from the poles toward the equator partly due to the variations in density of seawater.
	B.The main ocean current flows clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in the Southern Hemisphere partly due to the ocean conveyor belt.
	C.The main ocean current flow counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere partly due to gyres.
	D.The main ocean current flow clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in the Southern Hemisphere partly due to the Coriolis effect.

Question 25 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Identify the ocean zone shown in the figure below that is labeled “A”.

	A.bathyal
	B.euphotic
	C.oceanic
	D.hadal

Question 26 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

What is likely to be the MOST important global impact of bycatch?

	A.Loss of ocean biodiversity.
	B.Coral bleaching.
	C.Nonpoint source pollution.
	D.Habitat destruction.

Question 27 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

How do many scientists believe the US can BEST manage our oceans?

	A.By ratifying the U.N. Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS),
	B.By following an ecosystem based approach to manage ocean environments.
	C.By switching from deep-sea fishing to aquaculture to reduce bycatch.
	D.By switching to incentive based pollution laws to reduce ocean pollution.

Question 28 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

The main cause of undernutrition is

	A.a shift from eating grains to eating processed foods.
	B.lack of access to adequate nutritional guides.
	C.poverty.
	D.the proliferation of monoculture practices.
	E.unsanitary cooking of food.

Question 29 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

According to the graph below, U.S. wheat yields

	A.suffered from poor weather conditions in 1980
	B.benefited from the green revolution in 2000
	C.remained constant from 1990-2005
	D.doubled from 1950 to 1970
	E.tripled from 1960 to 2005

Question 30 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

The move away from using techniques that produce high yield and toward methods that focus on long-term sustainability of the soil is known as

	A.habitat fragmentation.
	B.subsistence agriculture.
	C.industrialized agriculture.
	D.the green revolution.
	E.the second green revolution.

Question 31 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

What is a biological control for pest management?

	A.some members of the pest population are sterilized
	B.sexual attractants lure pest species to traps
	C.predators, parasites, or disease organisms are released to reduce pest populations
	D.harvested foods are exposed to ionizing radiation
	E.genetic engineering develops pest-resistant crops

Question 32 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

The species richness of a community is related to all of the following factors except

	A.the geological history of the region.
	B.the geographic isolation of the community.
	C.the abundance of ecological niches.
	D.the quality of ecosystem services.
	E.environmental stress.

Question 33 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Which of the illustrated species below is considered endangered?

	A.A
	B.B
	C.C
	D.D
	E.E

Question 34 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Which of the following best describes the goal of restoration ecology?

	A.to provide legal protection to listed threatened species
	B.to study how humans impact organisms
	C.to return a human-damaged ecosystem to its former state
	D.to develop strict controls for the exploitation of endangered species
	E.to produce more natural ecosystems in urban settings

Question 35 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Why don’t scientists know the exact number of species on Earth?

	A.because about 10,000 new species are identified each year.
	B.because species are becoming extinct at a rate that is too fast to count
	C.because the system used to define what constitutes a species keeps changing
	D.because historical records are inaccurate
	E.Scientists do know. There are 1.8 million existing species on Earth

Question 36 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Today’s solid waste contains more ________than in the past, whereas the amounts of glass and steel have declined.

	A.paper and plastics
	B.food wastes
	C.yard wastes
	D.copper and aluminum
	E.rubber and wood

Question 37 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

According to the data in Figure 16.8a on page 405 of your textbook, what solid waste was recycled more in 2005 than it was incinerated or disposed of in the landfill? (NOTE: Each set of bars shows the recycling in millions of tons for 1960, 1970, 1980, 1990, and 2000 [left side]; and 2003, 2004, and 2005 [right side]).

	A.yard trimmings
	B.paper and paperboard
	C.aluminum
	D.glass
	E.none of the waste products

Question 38 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

A group of 209 industrial chemicals composed of C, H, and Cl manufactured for cooling fluids, hydraulic fluids, lubricants, inks, and pesticide extenders are known as

	A.petroleum oils.
	B.inorganic solvents.
	C.heavy metals.
	D.dioxins.
	E.polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs).

Question 39 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Which of the following is an example of green chemistry?

	A.use bacteria to treat contaminated soil
	B.use plants to absorb and accumulate toxic materials from the soil
	C.develop a water-based solvent to substitute for a chlorinated solvent for industrial cleaning
	D.use high-temperature incineration to detoxify pesticides
	E.prevent chemical accidents through the principle of inherent safety

Question 40 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Corporations and governments began to take NEPA seriously after which of the following events?

	A.Environmental groups began suing individuals and organizations based on environmental impact statements.
	B.Further legislation was added to strengthen NEPA.
	C.The creation of the EPA.
	D.The publication of Rachel Carson’s book Silent Spring.

Question 41 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

The ability to meet humanity’s current needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs is termed:

	A.ecology
	B.environmental sustainability
	C.environmental ethics
	D.environmental law

Question 42 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

What is a species?

	A.Organisms that live together.
	B.Organisms that live in the same area at the same time.
	C.A group of similar organisms whose members freely interbreed with one another.
	D.All of the organisms that live together in an area including the physical environment that they live in.

Question 43 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

The resource show here can be classified as: 1. perpetually renewable 2. nonrenewable 3. renewable only if they are replanted and given time to grow

	A.a) 1 only
	B.b) 2 only
	C.c) 3 only
	D.d) both 1 and 2

Question 44 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Negative environmental impacts from oil and natural gas production may occur due to

	A.release of oxides in combustion emissions.
	B.accidental spills at extraction sites and during transport.
	C.erosion and landslides during withdrawal of resources.
	D.improper storage and disposal of spent fuel.

Question 45 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

What is the BEST definition of preservation?

	A.Setting aside land and natural resources.
	B.Careful management of land and resources.
	C.Using land and natural resources based on current needs.
	D.Multiple use management of land and natural resources.

Question 46 of 50

0.0/ 2.0 Points

“An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure.” This statement is the heart of the

	A.remedial principle.
	B.exposure principle
	C.persistence principle.
	D.precautionary principle.

Question 47 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

The process of identifying, assessing, and reducing risk is called:

	A.risk
	B.risk assessment
	C.risk management
	D.risk categorization

Question 48 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Recommendations for achieving sustainable living include:

	A.Eliminate poverty.
	B.Design sustainable cities.
	C.Provide adequate food for all people.
	D.All these are recommendations for sustainable living.

Question 49 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Solar thermal energy systems are inherently more efficient than photovoltaic solar cell systems because solar thermal systems

	A.diminish reliance on fossil fuel systems.
	B.reduce the potential of global warming.
	C.do not have any moving parts.
	D.concentrate the sun’s energy.

Question 50 of 50

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Which of the following stages comes LAST in addressing environmental problems?

	A.Risk analysis
	B.Political action
	C.Long-term management and evaluation
	D.Scientific assessment

SCIN 139 Final Examination

Copy and Pate below link into your Browser to buy tutorial

http://hwpool.com/product/scin-139-final-examination/

SCIN 139 Final Examination

Top of Form

Part 1 of 2 – Final: Multiple Choice

66.0/ 78.0 Points

Question 1 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

The world’s population growth has always been evenly distributed.

A. True

B. False

Question 2 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

The growth of the Earth’s overall population is distributed evenly.

A. True

B. False

Question 3 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

In Table 7-1, which of the following diseases was the leading cause of death through the 1900s and today?

	A.Tuberculosis
	B.Diabetes
	C.Heart Disease
	D.Cancer

Question 4 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

Anasazi Pueblos of the Southwest U.S. (i.e. Arizona, New Mexico) which flourished from 700-1200 A.D., began to fall primarily due to:

	A.drought
	B.insect pests
	C.disease
	D.war

Question 5 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

Countries like Nigeria, Ethiopia and Pakistan continue on a rapid growth trajectory with both high fertility and young populations. In 1998, each was predicted to add 50% to its population within 20 years. This is an example of:

	A.fecundity
	B.population momentum
	C.replacement level
	D.family planning

Question 6 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

Poultry, cow, and pig provide _____% of our animal protein.

	A.10
	B.25
	C.50
	D.80

Question 7 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

Three quarters of all 19th century deaths are estimated to have been caused by infectious “crowd diseases.”

True

False

Question 8 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

IMR:

	A.is measured in deaths of infants under one year per thousand live births
	B.varies among nations, social classes and ethnic groups
	C.is directly linked to diet, disease, living space, climate, and female workload
	D.all of the above

Question 9 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

Between 1790 and 1970, rural-to-urban migration or “urbanization” was changing social and cultural structures of societies. In the United States for example, the percentage of the people living in urban areas jumped from _____% to _____%.

	A.10% to 61%
	B.10% to 89%
	C.10% to 78%
	D.10% to 53%

Question 10 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

Which of the following crops was a major subsistence base for the Andes Mountains as early as 4550 B.C. (according to table 3-2)?

	A.Rice
	B.Maize
	C.Wheat
	D.Potato

Question 11 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

According to Figure 7-4, which Sub-Saharan African country has the most drastic disparity between life expectancy of those with – and those without – the AIDS virus?

	A.Congo
	B.Zimbabwe
	C.Nigeria
	D.Uganda

Question 12 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

According to table 3-2 in the texbook, which of the following crops was a major subsistence base for Southcentral Mexico as early as 4500 B.C.?

	A.Rice
	B.Potato
	C.Maize
	D.Wheat

Question 13 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

Although the Industrial Revolution technically spans more than one century, which time period saw the majority of technological advancements generally considered to be representative of the era?

	A.the 1700s
	B.the 1800s
	C.the 1900s
	D.the 1600s

Question 14 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

Vegetable proteins are classified as Grade I and are the best source for the eight essential amino acids.

True

False

Question 15 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

In which stage of epidemiological transition in Europe and the U.S. are chronic and degenerative diseases the leading cause of death?

	A.Stage I
	B.Stage II
	C.Stage III
	D.Stage IV

Question 16 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

Children are less affected than adults by changes in living conditions since their growing bodies are less sensitive to mild fluctuations of the environment.

True

False

Question 17 of 31

0.0/ 3.0 Points

According to table 5-1, which country in 1998 had the second lowest population doubling time (DT) of 25?

	A.Nigeria
	B.Pakistan
	C.Ethiopia
	D.Phillippines

Question 18 of 31

0.0/ 3.0 Points

Fatty acids:

	A.store energy in the liver and muscle tissue where it can be quickly converted to glucose
	B.store energy and absorb and transport nutrients; are 10-25% of our body weight
	C.transport cells, nutrients and waste; are about 60% of our body weight
	D.enable vital functions of metabolism and bone structure and transport essential substances

Question 19 of 31

0.0/ 3.0 Points

Regarding population growth curves (like the one on page 38), K means:

	A.exponential growth.
	B.migration.
	C.sigmoid form.
	D.carrying capacity.

Question 20 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

Carbohydrates:

	A.store energy in the liver and muscle tissue where it can be quickly converted to glucose
	B.store energy and absorbs and transports nutrients; is 10-25% of our body weight
	C.transports cells, nutrients and waste; is about 60% of our body weight
	D.enable vital functions of metabolism and bone structure and transport essential substances

Question 21 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

The Inuit (Eskimo) gain most of their food by hunting marine and terrestrial mammals. This is an example of:

	A.genetics.
	B.a human ecological niche.
	C.J-curve.
	D.surplus.

Question 22 of 31

0.0/ 3.0 Points

The NCHS standards, used to compare children’s health statistics in populations from all over the world, mostly consider the diversity of all the following indicators, EXCEPT:

	A.ethnic
	B.environmental
	C.economic
	D.genetic

Question 23 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

The book “The Hot Zone” discusses the rapid transmission of which of the following:

	A.AIDS
	B.Malaria
	C.Smallpox
	D.Ebola

Question 24 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

Historically, improvements in agricultural technology can sustain greater numbers of people.

A. True

B. False

Question 25 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

The following are examples of biological adaptation:

	A.acclimatization.
	B.behavioral.
	C.genetic.
	D.both A and C.

Question 26 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

‘Improvements to water supply and removal of garbage were of primary importance to the public’s health’ describes:

	A.Urbanization
	B.Chadwick Report
	C.Mathusian Trap
	D.none of the above

Part 2 of 2 –

19.0/ 22.0 Points

Question 27 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

The leading cause of death of all the infectious diseases, killing 2 million people a year and putting about 40% of the world’s population at risk, is

Question 28 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

Study Figure 4-4 of the textbook. In five words or less, why did smallpox deaths rebound in the early 1870s?

Question 29 of 31

3.0/ 3.0 Points

An epidemiologist would be interested in the Frequency, patterns of a disease or its distribution within a population.

Question 30 of 31

0.0/ 3.0 Points

The concept of a population exceeding its food supply (or “carrying capacity”), as demonstrated in Europe’s preindustrial period, is known as the

Question 31 of 31

10.0/ 10.0 Points

THIS IS A 10 POINT ESSAY: Answer BOTH parts of the question. PART 1: Describe the Aral Sea environmental catastrophe. Analyze the situation using “S.P.E.E.C.H.” perspectives. PART 2: In chapter 8, we learned about sustainable development. If you were a manager hired to solve the issues you’ve analyzed above, what specific recommendations would you make in terms of sustainable development and surviving environmental change?

SCIN 137 Final Examination

Copy and Pate below link into your Browser to buy tutorial

http://hwpool.com/product/scin-137-final-examination/

SCIN 137 Final Examination

Question 1 of 254.0 Points
Suppose Hurricane Bruno reached land with a sustained wind speed of 150 miles per hour. What category would the National Weather Service assign to this storm?

A.Category Two

B.Category Three

C.Category Four

D.Category Five

Question 2 of 254.0 Points
What is the relative humidity when the air temperature is 75 degrees Fahrenheit and the Wet Bulb temperature is 65 degrees Fahrenheit?

A.40 percent

B.50 percent

C.60 percent

D.70 percent

block is moving with a speed of 6 meters per second. What is the magnitude of the unknown force?

A.2 Newtons

B.11 Newtons

C.34 Newtons

D.102 Newtons

Question 4 of 254.0 Points
According to the Milankovitch Theory, which of the following is likely to produce change in the Earth’s climate?

A.Change in the tilt of the Earth’s axis

B.Change in the eccentricity of the Earth’s orbit

C.Change in the timing of the equinoxes and solstices

D.All of the above are likely to produce a change in the Earth’s climate.

Question 5 of 254.0 Points
On average, which form of severe weather causes the most fatalities per year in the United States?

A.Tornadoes

B.Flooding

C.Lightning

D.Heat

Question 6 of 254.0 Points
The Mediterranean climate is included in which climate group?

A.Tropical Moist Climates (Group A)

B.Dry Climates (Group B)

C.Moist Subtropical Mid-Latitude Climates (Group C)

D.Moist Continental Climates (Group D)

Question 7 of 254.0 Points
Which of the following describe the Little Ice Age?

A.The Viking colony in Greenland perished.

B.Vineyards vanished from England.

C.Winters were long and severe, and summers were short and wet.

D.All of these describe the Little Ice Age.

Question 8 of 254.0 Points
Where in the United States is rain the most acidic?

A.Rocky Mountain States

B.Gulf Coast of Texas

C.Middle Atlantic States and the Northeast
D.Pacific Northwest

Question 9 of 254.0 Points
What is the wind chill if the temperature of the air is minus 20 degrees Fahrenheit and the wind speed is 50 miles per hour?

A.minus 30

B.minus 40

C.minus 50

D.minus 60

Question 10 of 254.0 Points
Suppose the flame on a gas burner stove emits light just like a blackbody. The flame appears blue, emitting most of its light at a wavelength of 475 nanometers. What is the temperature of the flame?

A.3101 K
B.4101 K

C.5101 K

D.6101 K
Question 11 of 254.0 Points
In which layer of the Earth’s atmosphere does most day-to-day weather (rain, snow, thunderstorms) take place?

A.troposphere

B.mesosphere

C.thermosphere

D.stratosphere

Question 12 of 254.0 Points
Where would you expect to find the Horse Latitudes?

A.Near 30 degrees north and 30 degrees south of the equator
B.Near the equator

C.Near 60 degrees north and 60 degrees south of the equator
D.On a ranch in Wyoming

Question 13 of 254.0 Points
Which of the following is a consequence of a macroscale climate control?

A.Phoenix, Arizona, is now more humid in the summer than it was before agriculture and irrigation developed extensively in the rural areas outside the city.
B.More precipitation falls on the windward side of a mountain range than on the lee side.

C.The annual range of temperatures is greater in theNorthern Hemisphere than in the Southern Hemisphere.

D.Cities are warmer than their rural surroundings.

Question 14 of 254.0 Points
Which pH is the most acidic?

A.4.0

B.6.0

C.8.0

D.10.0

Question 15 of 254.0 Points
What is the Heat Index when the air temperature is 97 degrees Fahrenheit and the relative humidity is 60 percent?

A.110

B.120

C.130

D.140

Question 16 of 254.0 Points
Which of the following can be attributed to refraction of light in theA.The green flash, which is a light green color on the upper rim of the Sun as it is setting
B.Scintillation, or the twinkling of light from stars

C.Twilight, the time after sunset (and before sunrise) when the sky remains somewhat illuminated D.The green flash, scintillation, and twilight are all results of atmospheric refraction.

Question 17 of 254.0 Points
What is the normal pH of rain?

A.4.1

B.5.6

C.7.0

D.8.3

Question 18 of 254.0 Points
Which meteorological satellite orbit is best suited for continuous monitoring of the track of a hurricane?

A.Geostationary Orbit

B.Polar Orbit

C.Low Earth Equatorial Orbit
D.Lunar
Question 19 of 254.0 Points
In which layer of the Earth’s atmosphere do most of the charged particles of the ionosphere coexist with neutral (uncharged) atoms and molecules?

A.troposphere

B.stratosphere

C.mesosphere

D.thermosphere

Question 20 of 254.0 Points
What is the relative humidity when the wet-bulb temperature and the dry-bulb temperature are the same?

A.90 percent

B.95 percent

C.100 percent

D.None of the above

Question 21 of 254.0 Points
Normal temperature for the human body is about 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. This is about 37 degrees Celsius, or about 310 K. If the human body emits light like a blackbody, at what wavelength would it give off most of its light?

A.7108 nm

B.7692 nm

C.8172 nm

D.9348 nm

Question 22 of 254.0 Points
If the temperature of the air is 273 K, what is this temperature on the Fahrenheit scale?

A.0 degrees Fahrenheit

B.20 degrees Fahrenheit

C.32 degrees Fahrenheit

D.45 degrees Fahrenheit

Question 23 of 254.0 Points
Suppose the dry adiabatic lapse rate is 10 degrees Celsius per 1000 meters and the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is 6 degrees Celsius per 1000 meters. If an atmospheric sounding indicates that the environmental lapse rate is 14 degrees Celsius per 1000 meters on a hot humid summer afternoon, which of the following weather conditions is most likely?

A.clear skies

B.air pollution

C.thunderstorm

D.cold front

Question 24 of 254.0 Points
What two elements comprise 99 percent of the volume of the Earth’s atmosphere?

A.oxygen and water vapor
B.nitrogen and oxygen

C.hydrogen and oxygen

D.neon and nitrogen

Question 25 of 254.0 Points
Suppose you are resting under a shade tree in the desert. The temperature is 90 degrees Fahrenheit, and the relative humidity is 30 percent. What is the Heat Index?

A.89

B.92

C.95

D.98

SCIN 134 Final Examination

Copy and Pate below link into your Browser to buy tutorial

http://hwpool.com/product/scin-134-final-examination/

SCIN 134 Final Examination

Question 1 of 36

2.0 Points

A star that is spectral class A is hotter than a star of spectral class O.

True

False

Question 2 of 36

2.0 Points

It can take hundreds of billions of years for a red dwarf to convert all of its hydrogen completely to helium.

True

False

Question 3 of 36

2.0 Points

Red stars are relatively “cold”, with low surface temperatures.

True

False

Question 4 of 36

2.0 Points

A white dwarf is approximately the same size as the Earth.

True

False

Question 5 of 36

2.0 Points

Fusion only occurs on the surface of the Sun.

True

False

Question 6 of 36

2.0 Points

In the conversion from hydrogen to helium, four protons are converted to one helium nucleus.

True

False

Question 7 of 36

2.0 Points

Occam’s razor is the idea that the most simple and most straightforward explanation of observations in nature is most likely to be the correct one.

True

False

Question 8 of 36

2.0 Points

Sunspots are dark because they are hotter than the surrounding material on the Sun.

True

False

Question 9 of 36

2.0 Points

All of the terrestrial planets have plate tectonics with converging and spreading plates similar to Earth’s.

True

False

Question 10 of 36

2.0 Points

Red stars are hot and blue stars are cold.

True

False

Question 11 of 36

2.0 Points

The Galaxy rotates like a solid disk, like a CD or DVD.

True

False

Question 12 of 36

2.0 Points

Evidence suggests that planetary formation around stars like the Sun are very uncommon.

True

False

Question 13 of 36

2.0 Points

Gravitational lensing involves using a special type of lens in a telescope to view gravitational waves.

True

False

Question 14 of 36

2.0 Points

Two prominent research groups came to the same surprising conclusion after taking measurements of the luminosity of Type Ia supernovae at great distances, this being that the universe is accelerating while it expands.

True

False

Question 15 of 36

2.0 Points

Light has properties of both waves and particles.

True

False

Question 16 of 36

3.0 Points

What is the solar wind?

A.the storm of waves and vortices on the Sun’s surface generated by a solar flare.

B.the constant flux of photons from the Sun’s visible surface.

C.the circulation of gases between the equator and the poles of the Sun.

D.the Sun’s outer atmosphere streaming out into space.

Question 17 of 36

3.0 Points

The temperature of the Sun’s photosphere is:

A.about 10,000 K.

B.4400 K.

C.5800 K.

D.close to 1 million K.

Question 18 of 36

3.0 Points

Where do we find the most massive stars on the main sequence in a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram?

A.upper left

B.They all have approximately the same mass, because this is what defines the main sequence.

C.lower right

D.center, with lower mass stars on either side

Question 19 of 36

3.0 Points

The luminosity of a star is:

A.another name for its color or surface temperature.

B.its brightness as seen by people on Earth.

C.its total energy output into all space over all wavelengths.

D.its brightness at a hypothetical distance of 10 parsecs (32.6 light-years) from Earth.

Question 20 of 36

3.0 Points

What places a limit on the lifetime of a star?

A.Loss of the mass, and therefore of nuclear fuel, of the star into space by stellar winds.

B.The amount of available nuclear fuel it contains.

C.Collisions between stars in a galaxy are sufficiently frequent that all stars will eventually be destroyed in this way.

D.Buildup of spin as it evolves and contracts means that the star will eventually spin apart.

Question 21 of 36

3.0 Points

The most likely places in which stars and planetary systems are forming in the universe are:

A.the rarified outer space between galaxies.

B.regions of hot gas in the spiral arms of galaxies.

C.gas and dust nebulae.

D.the centers of galaxies.

Question 22 of 36

3.0 Points

X rays that come from the vicinity of a black hole actually originate from:

A.well inside the event horizon.

B.its exact center, or singularity.

C.relatively far away from the black hole, where matter is still relatively cool.

D.just outside the event horizon, on the accretion disk.

Question 23 of 36

3.0 Points

Black holes are so named because

A.they emit a perfect blackbody spectrum.

B.no light or any other electromagnetic radiation can escape from inside them.

C.all their electromagnetic radiation is gravitationally redshifted to the infrared, which leaves no light in the optical region.

D.they emit no visible light, their only spectral lines are in the radio and infrared.

Question 24 of 36

3.0 Points

Spectral lines are of particular importance in astronomy because:

A.each different element has a characteristic line spectrum.

B.they can be observed through a diffraction grating.

C.they are the only light bright enough to be seen at large distances.

D.only stars produce bright line spectra.

Question 25 of 36

3.0 Points

A significant contribution of Kepler to our understanding of the solar system was:

the discovery that Earth orbits the Sun.

B.the discovery that planetary orbits are not circular.

C.the observation of the phases of Venus.

D.the idea of a gravitational force between Earth and the Sun.

Question 26 of 36

2.0 Points

The age of Earth is considered to be:

A.about 100 million years.

B.about 4.6 million years.

C.about 4.6 billion years.

D.93 million years.

Question 27 of 36

3.0 Points

Rings of dust and icy particles are found around which planets?

A.all planets that have moons associated with them.

B.all four of the Jovian planets.

C.all four of the terrestrial planets.

D.only Saturn.

Question 28 of 36

3.0 Points

What are the most energetic eruptive events to occur on the Sun?

A.thermonuclear explosions

B.erupting prominences

C.coronal mass ejections

D.solar flares

Question 29 of 36

3.0 Points

Compared to a star in the middle of the diagram, a star in the lower left part of the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram is:

A.brighter.

C.cooler.

D.larger.

Question 30 of 36

3.0 Points

Our Sun will end its life by becoming a:

A.black hole.

B.white dwarf.

C.molecular cloud.

D.pulsar.

Question 31 of 36

3.0 Points

The central core of the Galaxy is in the direction of:

A.the Ring Nebula.

B.the North Star.

C.Sagittarius A*.

D.Orion’s belt.

Question 32 of 36

3.0 Points

How are galaxies spread throughout the universe?

A.They are grouped into clusters that are spread more-or-less evenly throughout the universe.

B.They are grouped into clusters, which are, in turn, grouped into clusters ofclusters (superclusters).

C.Galaxies are densest near the Milky Way Galaxy and become less and less numerous the farther we look out into the universe.

D.Galaxies are spread more-or-less evenly throughout the universe

Question 33 of 36

5.0 Points

What is the reason why we have seasons on the Earth? Give as much detail as you can in your own words, but be careful…if you include a misconception, the score is 0.

Question 34 of 36

5.0 Points

Explain in your own words why we see different phases of the Moon. Identify each of the four major phases, along with a description of what is occurring to allow us to see each of them.

Bonus point: At what time is each major phase visible at the Moon’s highest point in the sky?

Question 35 of 36

5.0 Points

How does Einstein’s famous equation, E = mc2, relate to the production of the Sun’s energy? Be sure to include what each factor in the equation represents with respect to what happens inside the Sun.

Question 36 of 36

5.0 Points

Identify and describe in your own words three separate and specific pieces of scientific evidence that support the Big Bang theory?

RES 429 (Property Management) Entire Course

Copy and Pate below link into your Browser to buy tutorial

http://hwpool.com/product/res-429-property-management-entire-course/

RES 429 (Property Management) Entire Course

RES 429 Week 1 Assignment The Professional Property Manager

The Professional Property Manager. Write a two- to-three page paper (excluding the title and reference pages) analyzing the roles, duties, and responsibilities of professional property managers. The research paper should be comprehensive and include specific examples. The paper should be formatted according to APA guidelines and reference two scholarly sources other than the text. Include responses to the following within your paper:

Summarize the advantages or disadvantages of working as an employee manager as opposed to a third- party manager.

Describe the reasons property owners would choose to hire a property manager rather than manage property themselves.

Explain why a property manager should be concerned about ethics.

RES 429 Week 2 Property Analysis

Property Analysis. For the final paper, you will be preparing a property management plan for a property of your choice (apartment building; shopping center; or other commercial property). Each week you will complete a component on the property management plan. In week two, you will be completing the property analysis section of the final property management plan.

Write a three- to four- page paper outlining your property analysis for a property of your choice. Please see the recommended readings section for resources to assist you in locating a property.

The property analysis is a review of the particular property itself: its physical condition and needs, its rent roll and lease structure, and its overall financial performance and condition. include the following.

The property analysis, at a minimum, should

Building size, location, accessibility
Physical condition and age of structure and grounds
Common area characteristics and condition
Tenant space characteristics and condition
Building occupancy and character of tenants
Curb appeal: visual impression, style
Building-to-land ratio: other possible uses or expansion on the site
Compliance status regarding relevant regulations
Current management strategy, policy, procedures
Current staffing adequacy
Financial integrity (including comparison of revenue and expenses with other similar buildings)

As you are preparing your property analysis and retrieving information from various sources, please keep the following in mind:

property. competitive?§ What is needed to make the property of my choice§A useful property analysis includes a thorough description of the

RES 429 Week 3 Assignment Maintenance Plan

Maintenance Plan. Write a two-to-three page paper (excluding the title and reference pages) detailing the maintenance plan for your Property Management Plan. The plan must include maintenance for indoor and outdoor goals. The paper should be formatted according to APA guidelines.

The maintenance plan should summarize:

Short term goals.

Long term goals.

Policies and procedures for routine maintenance.

Policies and procedures for preventative maintenance.

Policies and procedures for corrective maintenance.

As you are preparing your maintenance plan and retrieving information from various sources, be sure to include the following:

Explain whether or not you will use on-site maintenance personnel or hire on a contract basis.

Explain whether outdoor maintenance be handled by the same personnel that handle inside maintenance.

Explain the necessary maintenance tasks.

Describe how the maintenance tasks will be kept and scheduled.

The paper should be formatted according to APA guidelines and reference two scholarly sources in addition the textbook

RES 429 Week 4 Assignment Competitive Market Analysis

Competitive Market Analysis. Write a two-to-three page paper (excluding the title and reference pages) detailing the competitive market analysis for your Property Management Plan. In the competitive market analysis, you must compare the rents and occupancies of similar competing properties with your selected property. The competitive market analysis must also include a regional analysis and neighborhood analysis in which you outline the economic base of the metropolitan region, the geographic sector, and the local neighborhood in which the property is situated.

The paper must be formatted according to APA guidelines and reference two scholarly sources in addition the textbook.

RES 429 Week 5 Assignment Final Project Property Management Plan

Focus of the Final Project

Property Management Plan—Putting It All Together

The Property Management Plan should demonstrate your understanding of the reading assignments as well as implications of your newly acquired knowledge. You should integrate readings, class discussions, work/life experiences, and what you have learned about property management. The Property Management Plan requires that you synthesize and reflect upon your learning in the context of the course outcomes.

Prepare an eight- to-ten page paper (excluding title page and references page) in which you analyze what you have learned about property management and create a plan for the management of a property that you own and manage. The property can be an apartment building, shopping center, or other commercial property of your choice.

The Property Management Plan, at a minimum, should include:

Part I: Introduction and Mission

Your introduction should summarize the key aspects of the paper. You should create a mission statement to include:

Property name and location

Company background

Name of company

Organizational structure (sole proprietor, LLC, corporation, etc.)—optional

Part II: Property Management Plan

In Weeks Two, Three, and Four you developed the integral parts of a property management plan. These combined papers will serve as Part II of your Final Project and should include:

Property Analysis (Week Two Assignment)

Maintenance Plan (Week Three Assignment)

Competitive Market Analysis (Week Four Assignment)

o Summaryofcompetitivebuildings o Regionalanalysis

o Neighborhood analysis

Part III: Reflections

You should include what you have learned about property management and how you will apply what you’ve learned professionally.

You must use a minimum of seven scholarly sources, including the textbook. The Property Management Plan is due on the last day of class and must be written according to APA style guidelines

REMEMBER THE TITANS Deliverable Length: 800-1,000 words Using

Copy and Pate below link into your Browser to buy tutorial

http://hwpool.com/product/remember-titans-deliverable-length-800-1000-words-using/

REMEMBER THE TITANS

Deliverable Length: 800-1,000 words

Using Coach Boone or Yoast as an example, identify situations where either man demonstrated the four functions of management (planning, organizing, leading, and controlling).
Identify the diversity challenges that Coach Boone had to face by coming into the head-coaching role.
Walk through the six decision-making steps to determine if you would have made the same decision as Coach Boone to leave the decision to kick Ray off of the team to Gerry.
What leadership qualities did the Coaches demonstrate to be able to bring the team together to win the championship?

For this assignment, your focus on discussing specific management and leadership theories is central to your success in this paper. As such, you will need to include research (with citations and references) to support and validate your work. Follow APA formatting for all citations and references used.

RELS 201 Midterm Examination

Copy and Pate below link into your Browser to buy tutorial

http://hwpool.com/product/rels-201-midterm-examination/

RELS 201 Midterm Examination

Question 1 of 25

1.0 Points

The belief that if the divine exists, it is NOT possible for humans to know it is called what?

	A.atheism
	B.theism
	C.mysticism
	D.agnosticism

Question 2 of 25

1.0 Points

Religion attempts to approach an understanding of Unseen Reality from beyond literal expressions. Which of the following is NOT an example of this approach?

	A.historical
	B.allegorical
	C.symbolic
	D.mythical

Question 3 of 25

1.0 Points

A repeated and predictable form of entering into communion with that which is worshipped is known as what?

	A.rituals
	B.allegory
	C.mysticism
	D.myth

Question 4 of 25

1.0 Points

An understanding of religious stories as deeply important as having symbolic and metaphorical meaning (and not necessarily as literal historical facts) is related most closely to which religious perspective?

	A.religious fundamentalists
	B.religious absolutists
	C.religious liberals
	D.religious agnostics

Question 5 of 25

1.0 Points

The term for when societies become more scientific in their approach to understanding nature and the universe is called what?

	A.theistic
	B.mystic
	C.agnostic
	D.secular

Question 6 of 25

1.0 Points

Which ancient Greek philosopher believed that the soul was superior to the body and reason more reliable than the senses?

	A.Aristotle
	B.Plato
	C.Darwin
	D.Marx

Question 7 of 25

1.0 Points

According to some Eastern religions, the idea that we are distinct autonomous individuals is considered what?

	A.a temporary truth
	B.an allegory
	C.a ritual
	D.an illusion

Question 8 of 25

1.0 Points

The practice of yoga for Hindus is an attempt to do what?

	A.to achieve a state of mind to attain union with the Self.
	B.to achieve control over their body’s posture and flexibility.
	C.to achieve a “lethargic” state of mind.
	D.to achieve a better understanding of one’s independence from the universe.

Question 9 of 25

1.0 Points

According to Hindus, the liberation from the cycle of suffering-life, death, and rebirth-is known as what?

	A.dharma
	B.samsara
	C.moksha
	D.reincarnation

Question 10 of 25

1.0 Points

The philosophically associated understanding of suffering relates to Hinduism in what way?

	A.suffering is a result of people’s disobedience
	B.suffering is a result of people’s ignorance of Self
	C.suffering is a result of secularism
	D.suffering is a result of poorly performed yoga

Question 11 of 25

1.0 Points

The meaning of religion as “to tie again” is prominent in Hinduism in what way?

	A.by “tying” one’s being to the physical universe
	B.by “tying” one’s atman to one’s mind in opposition to the body.
	C.by “tying” one’s Self to one’s caste
	D.by “tying” one’s self to Absolute Reality

Question 12 of 25

1.0 Points

A spiritual teacher of Hinduism is known as what?

	A.a shudra
	B.a rama
	C.a guru
	D.a puja

Question 13 of 25

1.0 Points

The idea in Buddhism that sacred reality exists yet is not conceived of in terms of a personal Creator God is known as what?

	A.agnostic
	B.polytheistic
	C.nontheistic
	D.monotheistic

Question 14 of 25

1.0 Points

In Buddhism, it is said that Siddhartha was tempted by evil (Mata) to do what?

	A.become a what we would call a scientist
	B.connect the body to the mind through yoga
	C.burn the Bodhi tree
	D.keep his insights to himself

Question 15 of 25

1.0 Points

In Buddhism, the blissful liberation from the ego is best understood as what?

	A.dukka
	B.nirvana
	C.lama
	D.zazen

Question 16 of 25

1.0 Points

A good description of the goal the Buddha sets forth in the Four Noble Turths isn’t so much eliminating materialistic desires as much as it is what?

	A.eliminating desire itself
	B.eliminating financial desires
	C.eliminating unattainable desires
	D.eliminating physical desires

Question 17 of 25

1.0 Points

In Buddhism, the concepts of “selflessness” and “emptiness” mean what?

	A.understanding that a single supreme deity doesn’t exist
	B.understanding that there no soul or spirit
	C.understanding the problems of material desire
	D.understanding things “as they are” in order to overcome attachment to things and concepts

Question 18 of 25

1.0 Points

What does Buddha suggests as the reason he doesn’t say much about religious concepts such nirvana, the soul, or the afterlife?

	A.knowledge of such things are meant only for God
	B.knowledge of such things were lost as a result of samsara
	C.knowledge of such things does not lead to wisdom, holiness, peace, or nirvana
	D.knowledge of such things leads to madness

Question 19 of 25

1.0 Points

Confucius focused his teachings very much on the here-and-now and consequently taught very little about what?

	A.ethics and morals
	B.the supernatural
	C.sacred rituals
	D.virtue

Question 20 of 25

1.0 Points

Confucius’ work was…

	A.destroyed during his lifetime
	B.known, but not considered very significant during his lifetime
	C.not written or taught during his lifetime
	D.known and considered very significant during his lifetime

Question 21 of 25

1.0 Points

The ancient Chinese symbol showing interlocking shapes represents what?

	A.Yin/Yang – the symbol of deities of the universe
	B.Yin/Yang – the symbol of the ever-present dark forces of the universe
	C.Yin/Yang – the symbol of the continually shifting forces of the universe
	D.Yin/Yang – the symbol of the overtaking of the “dark” forces by the “light”

Question 22 of 25

1.0 Points

In Daoism, taking no action contrary to nature is known as what?

	A.yi
	B.ren
	C.chun-tzu
	D.wu wei

Question 23 of 25

1.0 Points

Confucius uses what term to describe the person who is not motivated by personal profit and recognition, but rather is motivated by self-improvement and what is moral?

	A.yi
	B.ren
	C.chun-tzu
	D.wu wei

Question 24 of 25

1.0 Points

The Analects regularly refers to Confucius as what?

	A.Prince’s Son
	B.Enlightened One
	C.Way of Heaven
	D.Master

Question 25 of 25

1.0 Points

The two commentators on Confucianism, Mengzi and Zunzi, differed sharply on what issue?

	A.The existence of the transcendental cosmic realm of hell
	B.The nature of the universe – chaos or order
	C.The nature of humans – good or flawed
	D.Whether Confucius was divine or not

QRB/501 Quantitative Reasoning For Business Entire Course

Copy and Pate below link into your Browser to buy tutorial

http://hwpool.com/product/qrb501-quantitative-reasoning-business-entire-course/

QRB/501 Quantitative Reasoning For Business Entire Course

QRB 501 Week 1 Quiz (New)

QRB 501 Week 2 Learning Team Case Studies (5-2 and 6-2) (New)

QRB 501 Week 2 Quiz (New)

QRB 501 Week 2 Problem Set (New)

QRB 501 Week 3 Learning Team Case Studies (8-3 and 9-1) (New)

QRB 501 Week 3 Quiz (New)

QRB 501 Week 3 Problem Set (New)

QRB 501 Week 4 Team Assignment Standard Deviation Abstract (New)

QRB 501 Week 4 Quiz (New)

QRB 501 Week 4 Problem Set (New)

QRB 501 Week 5 Learning Team Case Studies (21-1 and 21-2) (New)

QRB 501 Week 5 Quiz (New)

QRB 501 Week 5 Problem Set (New)

QRB 501 Week 6 Learning Team Capital Budgeting Case Study (New)

QRB 501 Week 6 Problem Set (New)